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Did Epicurus Commit Suicide Due To His Disease? (Merger of Two Threads On When Voluntary Death Makes Sense)

  • Don
  • December 7, 2022 at 7:14 AM
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    • April 30, 2025 at 4:17 PM
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    • #81

    I don't know that we've previously discussed this article by Maria Bitsori:

    Epicurus' death
    The aim is to present how an eminent philosopher perceived, reported and faced his progressing and ultimately fatal uropathy, 23 centuries ago. All available…
    www.academia.edu

    It gets close to the issue but as I read through it doesn't really address the argument at length. I see that it does include a reference I've never seen before. The way it's written it sure sounds like it's referencing Epicurus, but the footnote refers to Marcus Aurelius (Marcus Aurelius (1930) Meditations: 9. 41. Edited and translated by Haines CR. The Loeb Classical Library. Harvard University Press, Cambridge, Massachusetts, pp 254–257) Perhaps Aurelius is referring to Epicurus, or perhaps I'm just not reading it properly.

    Quote

    Epicurus obviously followed these palliative measures in his final-stage disease. Surgery could have been a more appropriate management. Surgical interventions in urinary tract diseases were not unknown at the time [7], but most probably they couldn’t help in this specific case. On the other hand, the philosopher himself did not seem eager to accept any extraordinary medical intervention: ‘‘nor did I let the physicians ride the high horse as if they were doing grand things’’ [15]

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    • April 30, 2025 at 5:19 PM
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    • #82

    This is an interesting question. We're in the realm of speculation and most likely we will never know for sure but I always found the beginning of the letter to Idomeneus quite peculiar: "On this blissful day, which is also the last of my life, I write this to you. [...]"

    How could Epicurus know that it was the last day and why he called it blissful? To me, it sounds a bit like: "There's nothing much to be done, so I feel relief as I made a decision to pull the plug today and end the suffering".

    Maybe it would be worthwhile to closely inspect original Greek to shed more light on this sentence?

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    • April 30, 2025 at 5:59 PM
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    • #83
    Quote

    How could Epicurus know that it was the last day and why he called it blissful? To me, it sounds a bit like: "There's nothing much to be done, so I feel relief as I made a decision to pull the plug today and end the suffering".

    It's difficult to separate the fact from the wish-thinking. I knew three different people to whom this kind of foreknowledge has been ascribed. A husband who sent flowers to his wife at work on the morning of his death. A woman who worked tirelessly to repeal a law she believed was immoral, and died in her bed with her hands clasped over her abdomen the day that law was repealed. A man who requested blackberry brandy and died after draining the glass.

    I do not accept these uncritically, and would not suggest a cause outside of nature even if I did, but I don't think it's impossible for a person to know that the moment of their death is at hand. Maybe they feel that death is coming on in the same way that we feel a sneeze is coming on. Maybe they can even choose a time to stop struggling for life and let go. Fifty years after signing the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson and John Adams both died on the 4th of July, the last living members of the committee that had produced that document.

    Jefferson's Last Words
    What did Jefferson say shortly before he died on July 4, 1826.
    www.monticello.org
  • Don
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    • April 30, 2025 at 6:08 PM
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    • #84

    This is the word used in Epicurus' letter:

    Henry George Liddell, Robert Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon, τελευτ-αῖος

    "Τὴν μακαρίαν ἄγοντες καὶ ἅμα τελευταίαν ἡμέραν τοῦ βίου ἐγράφομεν ὑμῖν ταυτί.

    Why does he use ἐγράφομεν "we write"? 1st person plural?

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    • April 30, 2025 at 8:05 PM
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    • #85
    Quote from Don

    Why does he use ἐγράφομεν "we write"? 1st person plural?

    I've been considering if this choice was a reflection of those texts being expressions of the collective thought held by the leaders of the Garden, or else, if it evident (as I think might be the case with the Last Will) that someone was transcribing on behalf of Epicurus, or else, copying material.

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    • April 30, 2025 at 8:29 PM
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    • #86

    I see we have discussed some of these questions at length in a thread from 2022;

    Thread

    Did Epicurus Commit Suicide Due To His Disease? (Merger of Two Threads On When Voluntary Death Makes Sense)

    […]

    I know you bring this up on occasion, but I can never remember the textual reference. Where is that?
    Don
    December 7, 2022 at 7:14 AM

    edit; see @Martin's comment  #61 in that thread.

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    • April 30, 2025 at 9:22 PM
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    • #87

    We discussed this issue briefly in tonight's Wednesday Zoom and I thought I remembered that there was another Epicurean thought to have committed suicide. As is often the case i can sometimes remember the first letter of a name but often mess up the main part. In this case the name I could not remember did start with a D, but it appears to be one Diodorus as referenced by Seneca (see below).

    And I see in that earlier thread that there is some issue that maybe Democritus went out in similar way.


    Post

    RE: Did Epicurus Commit Suicide Due To His Disease? (Merger of Two Threads On When Voluntary Death Makes Sense)

    More from James Warren (same source):

    it is the result of a calculation that the alternative would be a continued life of pain. Provided life has pleasure left in it,we will continue to live. And the Epicurean sage will be sufficiently schooled to continue to find pleasure in life under conditions which others would find unbearable—Epicurus' own example of composure in the face of terminal illness demonstrates this. 345 Seneca reports the suicide of an Epicurean named Diodorus. On this…
    Cassius
    December 8, 2022 at 10:14 PM
  • Don
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    • April 30, 2025 at 11:36 PM
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    • #88
    Quote from Bryan

    he took his own life by drinking neat wine."

    -- Pausanias, Description of Greece 10.23.12 (2nd century AD)

    ἑκουσίως ἀφεῖναι τὴν ψυχὴν ἀκράτου πίνοντα τοῦ οἴνου.

    DL10.15 Hermippus relates that [Epicurus] entered a bronze bath of lukewarm water and asked for unmixed wine,

    Ἕρμιππος ἐμβάντα αὐτὸν εἰς πύελον χαλκῆν κεκραμένην ὕδατι θερμῷ καὶ αἰτήσαντα ἄκρατον ῥοφῆσαι:...

    Just had to check it was the same word. Sure enough. ἄκρατον

  • Cassius May 1, 2025 at 6:44 AM

    Changed the title of the thread from “In Epicurean Philosophy Is Suicide (Or voluntary death of any kind) ever warranted?” to “Did Epicurus Commit Suicide Due To His Disease? (Merger of Two Threads On When Voluntary Death Makes Sense)”.
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    • May 1, 2025 at 6:48 AM
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    • #89

    I merged our recent discussion of the effect of unmixed wine with the previous thread on voluntary death since the topic is essentially the same. As discussion on this has progressed one aspect that seem particularly interesting is Bryan's latest post as to the Gaul who was reported to have committed suicide by unmixed wine. Further, there seem to be reasonable conjecture that drinking unmixed wine might have been an accepted euphemism for suicide, or that drinking of unmixed wine was at times accompanied by poison. All of this would need citations to texts for them to become more viable suggestions, so we can pursue all of this discussion here with all the background in one place.

  • Godfrey
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    • May 2, 2025 at 2:14 AM
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    • #90

    I'm asking this in complete ignorance on the subject, but is it possible that ancient Greek wine was made through a different process than today's French and California wines? Some type of extremely strong retsina? Something that needed water mixed in just to be palatable as well as safe to drink?


    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_G…fore%20pressing.

    https://www.badancient.com/claims/ancient…oman%20cultures.

    https://greekreporter.com/2022/05/09/why-ancient-greeks-mixed-wine-with-seawater/

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    • May 2, 2025 at 6:02 AM
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    • #91

    Very interesting!

    Quote

    So then, what of Pliny’s reference to Roman Falernian wine lighting with a flame (Natural History 14.8)? Or Plutarch’s description of Alexander the Great’s wine drinking contest where more than 40 men died from excessive consumption (Life of Alexander 70.1)?

    The facts of that article are very interesting, but its argument in conclusion that it is false to suppose that ancient wine was stronger than modern wine seems very poorly argued to me. I suppose it's saying "as a general rule" and maybe that's fair, but the conclusion itself seems overbroad to me.

  • Don
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    • May 2, 2025 at 6:07 AM
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    • #92

    Those are fascinating articles. Thanks for sharing, Godfrey . To directly respond to:

    Quote from Godfrey

    Something that needed water mixed in just to be palatable as well as safe to drink?

    No, I don't see any evidence of that. One thing counter to that idea I've read in the past is about the symposiarch who ran the drinking parties (symposia, literally "together-drinking") being in charge of how much water to mix in the wine as the evening progressed to regulate the level of drunkenness.

    Wine was a ubiquitous beverage with a wide range of qualities and flavors. But it was, from everything I've read, all potable. Granted, we may find some products less palatable ourselves but we're spoiled from modern stabilisation and consistency.

    I found this intriguing in the one article:

    Quote

    Drinking wine that was not mixed with water (άκρατος οίνος) was considered barbaric. Such wine without water was used only as medicine for the sick or during travel as a tonic.

    That Greek is the same word that showed up in our texts above.

    For anyone curious about retsina:

    Retsina - Wikipedia
    en.wikipedia.org
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