With an extended discussion like this it's easy to lose track of what points are agreed and what are in dispute.
No one seems to question that Epicurus at least occasionally used the term katastematic and kinetic.
The clearest point of contention to anything that has been under discussion is the sort of "Wikipedia" version that Epicurus held that the ultimate goal of life is katastematic pleasure.
I don't gather that Don is advocating for that position but at this point in the conversation we ought to regroup and clarify the implications of the respective positions.
Don what would you say are the implications of your position (which at this point I gather to be mainly only that you are thinking that Epicurus considered the distinction more significant than Gosling & Taylor and Nikolsky do)?