Cassius, how do you interpret the following passage from Epicurus' Letter to Menoeceus?:
"So when we say that pleasure is the goal we do not mean the pleasures of the profligate or the pleasures of consumption, as some believe, either from ignorance and disagreement or from deliberate misinterpretation, but rather the lack of pain in the body and disturbance in the soul."
Is this not a description of katastematic pleasure, and an attempt to distinguish it from kinetic pleasure? And if so, does it not show that katastematic pleasure is of paramount importance in Epicurean ethics?