Let's say we go with this alternate translation Don quoted above, and forget the "for a moment" for the time being:
Quote"Finite time and infinite time contain the same amount of joy, if its limits are measured out through reasoning. "
Is a normal person using these words normally and giving them their normal and ordinary meanings expected to understand that a life of 25 years contains the same amount of joy as a life of 50 years?
If so, please explain how that works. If that's not a clear implication of this statement, how is it not?
[Please remember everyone that I am to some extent playing "devil's advocate" here in an attempt to draw this out more clearly. I do think that this can be made to make sense, but I am also convinced that the way that most people will interpret these words superficially will make no sense at all to them and thus be a barrier to their advancing further in studying Epicurus.]