Another observation in unraveling this, spurred by our recent discussion of Cyreniacs:
Chrysippus came after Epicurus, but that does not mean that he was responding specifically to Epicurus. Presumably he could have been responding to the earlier Aristippus/Cyreniacs, against whom his argument is valid, and ignoring Epicurus.
So from Chrysippus' point of view, If the guiding principle of life is the stimulative pleasure the Cyreniacs advocated, and if there are large segments of time when stimulative pleasure is not present at all, then to what are we to look during those times? Who needs or can depend on a guide which is not present?
Not that this really adds anything to the conversation but depending on who is talking to whom Chysippus could have been entirely pleased and convinced of his own argument if he was for some reason not intending to deal with Epicurus.
And to that extent Chrysippus and Epicurus would have been in agreement: both saw the flaw in the Cyreniac logic, but only Epicurus was motivated to correct it by expanding the definition of pleasure.
