All pleasure may be desirable, because it is pleasure, but does that observation mean that all pleasure is EQUALLY desirable? I don't think that is the correct conclusion. And this would not be because of some outside standard of virtue that some pleasures are more "noble" than others, but as simple as observing that some pleasures are more long-lasting, or intense, than others, under our individual circumstances.
(This comment came out ofthe thread discussing Hercules, but it deserves its own thread because of the importance of the question. DeWitt talks about the "fullness of pleasure" but that does not mean that all pleasure is interchangeable, does it?)
Here I think we need to consider PD9 "If every pleasure had been capable of accumulation, not only over time but also over the entire body or at least over the principal parts of our nature, then pleasures would never differ from one another."