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See also
Related to Chapter 10?
Welcome aboard, jason !
The more I learned, the more I realized that many Epicurean ideas resonate with beliefs I’ve developed over the years through my own intellectual explorations.
You'll find that sentiment echoed by a number of forum members 
FYI...
DCLP/Trismegistos 62661 = LDAB 3847
Fwiw, here's a review of a critical edition of Polystratus' work (again, Google translate from the French)
This work by Giovanni Indelli, which appears in a new collection of texts from the School of Epicurus contained in the Herculaneum papyri, is worthy of attention and interest for several reasons.
First of all, it gives us a global and nuanced overview of the identity, work and role of Polystratus within the School of Epicurus, most of whose texts have been lost, at least as far as the earliest period is concerned.
Then we have here a very careful critical edition, carried out using the most reliable techniques, and accompanied by a clear and faithful Italian translation, a documented introduction and a commentary written in an authentically philological and philosophical spirit.
Finally, the very content of Polystrate's text has an undeniable historical interest, and shows well, as Mr. Indelli emphasizes, the state of the discussions between the different post-Aristotelian schools. The Περί ἀλόγου καταφρονήσεως "is addressed to those who, while they despise popular opinions, nevertheless defend opinions even less acceptable, because they are not based on λόγος" (p. 28). The disciple of Epicurus, for his part, has no weakness for the ideas of the masses, but his criticism of their errors and superstitions is based on a knowledge of nature finalized by practical life. Indeed, to free oneself from the unhappiness that ignorance and prejudice cause and to lead a happy life, one must refer to the φρόνησις and the ὀρθὴ φυσιολογία which are taught to us by the doctrine of Epicurus and which allow us to attain perfect pleasure.
In this context Polystratus develops an articulate critique of a skeptical objection to the fundamental principles of the Garden: his opponents are suspicious of the effective existence of ethical concepts, whose validity is clearly changeable among individuals and peoples. Polystratus' solution to this problem, which Epicurus had not dealt with explicitly, is based on the difference between "relative" and "absolute" concepts. Even "relative" concepts, such as those of δυνάμεις and πράξεις, nevertheless have an effective validity and existence. On the other hand, a critique of popular opinions based on obscure principles and obvious falsehoods, such as that developed by his opponents, has no value, becomes dangerous and dishonest and, ultimately, is irrational.
Fabio CIARAMELLI.
We all end at the same point - I think - that whatever is the truth, the universe is "natural" and doesn't have a supernatural overlay above it. So frequently the details are not necessarily important to reconcile, UNLESS they point to a major conclusion about the supernatural or life after death or something that would call into question whether the truth is natural or supernatural, or would call into question key issues about the "knowability" of any truth at all. Definitely when anything like that arises it does need to be made to synchronize at least at the conclusion level.
We basically agree. I would reword your initial sentence as: The truth is that the universe is "natural" and doesn't have a supernatural overlay above it.
Anything that contradicts that, much like seeing Alexander the Oracle Monger's snake, we should be one "whose intelligence was steeled against such assaults by scepticism and insight, one who, if he could not detect the precise imposture, would at any rate have been perfectly certain that, though this escaped him, the whole thing was a lie and an impossibility."
I'll likely never accept that in philosophical discussion there is a necessity of mapping into modern paradigms that are regularly changing and within which the experts don't even agree among themselves. I'll let those who want to try do to that pursue that, and I do understand that some want to do that.
Cosmos connects well with a galaxy, To Pan with the universe. If we want other cosmoi, I'd think we only have to accept multiple galaxies. As we know, Epíkouros uses Cosmos in the plural, but not To Pan.
To be clear about my perspective: when Epicurus says κόσμος cosmos "world" I think the evidence is that he means a planet (Earth) and all its accompanying sky and stars. Another "world" or κόσμος is this same system elsewhere. The universe, Το Παν (To Pan) "The All" is the entirety of existence that contains ALL these cosmoi.
Honestly, I think that trying to map ΚΟΣΜΟΣ "kosmos", ΚΟΣΜΟΙ "kosmoi", and ΤΟ ΠΑΝ "The All" onto modern concepts, especially concepts and theories that are evolving, is a fool's errand. Epicurus' conceptions of kosmoi and The All were fundamentally different than our own. My understanding is that kosmoi were islands of order in The All. Kosmos literally means "order" (actually related to English cosmetic, bringing order to one's face or appearance). Our word "planet" to the Greeks was simply a wandering star, πλανήτης, against the fixed stars in the sky. Epicurus didn't speak of beings on another πλανήτης but beings in/on/inhabiting other κόσμοι. Earth, to him as best I can ascertain, was where we lived in our κόσμος.
That's why discussions like this about theology or cosmology are often talking past each other. When the ancients were talking about an intermundia "between worlds" or ΜΕΤΑΚΟΣΜΟΣ they didn't imagine planets or worlds or galaxies or multiverses. They had their ideas, . We have our ideas, informed by science and observation. I need to accept that Epicurus and the ancient Greek cosmological concepts have no necessity to equate with my modern ideas. They may overlap slightly, but they cannot be made to synchronize.
Look forward to reading your efforts and seeing your translation decisions.
... And that's exactly what I mean too when I say "the universe is all that exists." Any kind of terminology such as world systems or multiverses or anything else falls within "the universe is all that exists. " If it exists anywhere using any adjective, it's part of the "universe."
Oh, I completely agree that "the universe is all that exists" just to be clear. The only complication on that is possibly a differing view on what we mean by "world" and "universe." To be clear about my perspective: when Epicurus says κόσμος cosmos "world" I think the evidence is that he means a planet (Earth) and all its accompanying sky and stars. Another "world" or κόσμος is this same system elsewhere. The universe, Το Παν (To Pan) "The All" is the entirety of existence that contains ALL these cosmoi. The planets were find orbiting other stars are part of our cosmos. If we want other cosmoi, we have to accept the multiverse, ie, other universes. All the universes together in modern cosmology make up The Universe, THE All. If one is trying to map Epicurean cosmology onto a modern paradigm, I contend that that's the only way to do it.
That doesn't in any way go against Epicurus' primary tenet that we live in a natural, material universe.
I'd say your suggestions there are possibilities, but not really compelled at all by the texts. I would expect Epicurus thought of the universe as "all that exists."
Epicurus posited many world-systems in an infinite All (universe). That's exactly what the texts provide.
I'd wager we are me no more than a couple of hundred years from that ability ourselves, at the outside.
By what means? Not being argumentative, just curious.
If I temporarily take the physical gods perspective...
If you want to go down the physics route translated into a modern paradigm, I'm going to posit that the intermundia refers to another dimension or another universe in the multiplicity of universes out in The All. Gods are material and natural, but reside outside our universe under a different physics than our own. We cannot see them with our eyes, because our universe doesn't overlap with theirs. They are not aliens living on planets in our universe. That's just an assertion on my part, granted. But that's the only way I could right now "accept" a corporeal divinity in an Epicurean theological context.
I find it much easier to think of the gods as what an ideal life would be like without the limits on mortal, corruptible bodies. The best I can do is to live "like a god". That doesn't mean identical to a god or equivalent to a god. It's a metaphorical divine existence.
column 24
P.Herc. 1148 col. 24
Sketched 1803-1803 by Carlo Orazi
[ἀ-]
γ̣απητ[ὸν] καὶ τοῦτ[ο], τὸ
δὴ πάντα τὸν συνε̣[χό]με-
νον̣ [ταῖς] τοιαύταις περι-
εργ[ε]ίαις ἔχειν οἱονὶ φάρ-
μακ̣ον δι' οὗ κα̣τα̣στάσεις
ἁ̣πλ[ᾶς ἔστι]ν ἐν τῆι περὶ φύ-
σε[ως θεωρί]αι ἀπαλλαγή-
σε[σθαι τῆς σ]υμφύτου ἑαυ-
τα̣[ῖς ταραχ]ῆς ἣ καὶ ὕσ̣τε-
10ρον̣ [ ̣ ̣] ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ η̣πο ̣ ̣ σιτ ̣ ̣
γε [ ̣ ̣] ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ὥστε ̣ ̣ ̣ υ̣ ̣
[ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣] ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ τοιού̣[τοι]ς ̣ ̣
[ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣] ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣ ον̣ [ ̣ ̣ ̣] ̣ ̣ ̣ ̣
[ -ca.?- ]
I just came across this quickly-escalating conversation and have thoughts.
I find myself aligned with TauPhi 's direction here as I read it. Correct me if I'm wrong, but paraphrasing his stance as I understand it (and Epicurean theology) with some of my own perspective mixed in:
The gods (whether thought constructs or physical beings) are not above or outside nature; they have no concerns for humans and do not bestow blessings or rain down punishment. Those seem to be the points of paramount importance to Epicurus. We have nothing to fear from gods (no matter how they exist).
The gods do not interfere with humans, have no need of humans, live in bliss, and are incorruptible.
Going from TauPhi's points with my own direction: The gods have no concern for humans; however, if humans were to try to contact gods or come into physical contact with them... the gods would necessarily be troubled by humans. This seems to me to be counter to Epicurean theology. If we wish to be "god-like" in an Epicurean sense, we should not bother the gods: "That which is blissful and immortal has no troubles itself, nor does it cause trouble for others, so that it is not affected by anger or gratitude (for all such things come about through weakness)." If we trouble or annoy the gods by going around poking them, prodding them, trying to contact them, by definition, we not acting as an Epicurean god. Leave them be, and admire their blessedness within our minds, contemplate their blessedness and incorruptibility.
On the Gods as Aliens...
I have no problem whatsoever thining that Epicurus would be interested to learn his idea of the universe was not as he had envisioned it. Knowing how the universe was put together and seeing other stars and worlds around those stars would further solidify his resolve that there was nothing to fear outside of the universe and that natural laws governed the universe and not a supernatural intelligence. He might even have been curious to entertain the multiverse/bubble universe concepts. If aliens contacted Earth, he would probably shrug and say, "I knew it would happen eventually." But those aliens are NEVER going to be Epicurean gods. By definition, if they concern themselves with humans, they aren't gods. "That which is blissful and immortal has no troubles itself, nor does it cause trouble for others."
For anyone curious about my general stance on Epicurean theology, listen to our recent podcast episode on the idealist vs realist god stances, or think of it as "thought-construct" vs "physical being" debate. I don't think the gods have a corporeal form, visible to the eye, able to be touched. I think they are mental constructions of the ideal existence put into a form by the mind to be able to comprehend and think about a blessed and incorruptible state.
I don't think astrobiology has anything to say about Epicurean theology.
I do think astrobiology has everything to do with Epicurus' theory that multiple worlds exist and that other beings exist on those other worlds. I do not think that Epicurus would say those other beings on other worlds are gods. Go ahead and contact the other beings, by all means. Teach them about Epicurus and learn from their "Epicurus." There could very well be an alien "Epicurus" since I could easily see "pleasure-seeking" a universal trait of life. But they're not gods.
Case in point: I'll disagree with people who don't see the need for the Oxford comma!
Uh oh!
LOL! Bring it on! 
I won't derail this thread any more, but one example: https://www.cnn.com/2018/02/09/us/…trnd/index.html
Another paper:
And look at that, a different WP article!
Not quite. Philodemus calls it the tetrapharmakos:
right there starting at the end of the first line in this clip: ΤΕΤΡΑΦΑΡ ΜΑ / ΚΟC (tetraphar ma / kos).
It appears to me that the idea of a four part mixture that resulted in something greater than its parts was a common idea in ancient Greece. The Epicurean one is simply the school's response to this idea.
According to the PhD dissertation linked below, it appears tetrapharmakos was a general idea among philosophers and physicians in the ancient world. The Epicurean one was likely a response to this.
Theory and Terminology of Mixture in Galen.
The concepts of krasis and mixis in Galen’s thought: PhD Dissertation, Humboldt-Universität zu Berlin von MA Claudia Mirrione
T2 Galen in Hipp. Nat. Hom. comment. K. XV 32.1–11 Mewaldt 18.27–19.7
In fact, the four line verse found in Philodemus is not even brought up! This dissertation sheds a whole new light on how tetrapharmakos was understood in the ancient world. I wouldn't necessarily recommend reading the entire paper, but do a few searches for Epicurus or the word tetrapharmakos and skim the quotes. An unexpected find.
PS. It appears Dr. Mirrione got her PhD: https://www.klassphil.hu-berlin.de/en/avh-profess…-staff/mirrione
Welcome aboard, m.repetzki !
This is exactly the kind of thing that infuriates me about DeWitt's book 
(not, notably, his academic papers). He'll throw out a statement like this with no citation or reference. And then he brings up the tetrapharmakos in other points of the book in an evidently positive light.
Don aside from the papyrus we are talking about what citations can you provide for that? Possibly they are in the tread above and if so I will delete this post...
I'm not aware of any other than a possible paraphrase in Cicero and its similarity to the first few PDs.
My contention + and fondness for it as a link to the ancient members of our school and that it is of ancient Epicurean provenance is:
1. If Philodemus created it, he is a pivotal member of the ancient Epicurean school.
2. If Philodemus was critiquing its use among other Epicureans, they were obviously using it.
This exchange may seem pedantic but I think there is a lot more going on here than just the two of us talking shop so I think it's very useful!
Oh, I can be guilty of being pedantic. Case in point: I'll disagree with people who don't see the need for the Oxford comma! But I digress...
I would see that as an uncontroversial point and therefore unlikely to be the reason for its inclusion , and especially for its inclusion in the manner it is written.
See, here's a crux of our polite disagreement. And this goes waay back and I don't think either of us have budged I see PD10 as Epicurus planting a flag against the Cyrenaics specifically and other "pleasure seekers" of his day in general. I don't think it's an uncontroversial point. And the point I see him making in PD10/11/12 with all those If... Then's... is that if all these cases were, in fact, the case; we'd have no reason to study nature or learn the limits of pains and desires or even study philosophy. However, those if's, in fact, don't give us what we need to live a pleasurable life and so we then DO need to study nature and learn the limits of pain and desires.
I've always and continue to think you and others have tried to make this/these PDs do more philosophical heavy lifting than they need to.
